2020湖北高考英语试题

文/叶丹

绝密★启用前

2020年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试(全国卷I)

英语

注意事项:

1. 答卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。

2. 回答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时,将答案写在答题卡上,写在本试卷上无效。

3. 考试结束后,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。

第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)

做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。

第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)

听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。

例:How much is the shirt?

A. £19.15. B. £9.18. C. £9.15.

答案是C。

1. Where are the speakers?

A. At a swimming pool. B. In a clothing shop. C. At a school lab.

2. What will Tom do next?

A. Turn down the music. B. Postpone the show. C. Stop practicing.

3. What is the woman busy doing?

A. Working on a paper.

B. Tidying up the office.

C. Organizing a party.

4. When will Henry start his vacation?

A. This weekend. B. Next week. C. At the end of August.

5. What does Donna offer to do for Bill?

A. Book a flight for him. B. Drive him to the airport. C. Help him park the car.

第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)

听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。

听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。

6. Why does Pete call Lucy?

A. To say that he’ll be late. B. To tell her about his work. C. To invite her to dinner.

7. When is Pete going to see Lucy?

A. At 6:00 pm. B. At 6:45 pm. C. At 8:00 pm.

听第7段材料,回答第8至10题。

8.Why does Cathy want to quit her job?

A. She’ll join another firm.

B. She’ll run her own business.

C. She’s fed up with it.

9. What is Mark’s attitude towards Cathy’s decision?

A. Forgiving. B. Sympathetic. C. Supportive.

10. What might Cathy do for the present company?

A. Apply for a project. B. Train a new person. C. Recommend an engineer.

听第8段材料,回答第11至13题。

11. How did the man feel about his performance today?

A. Greatly encouraged.

B. A bit dissatisfied.

C. Terribly disappointed.

12. What did the man say helped him overcome the problem?

A. Patience.

B. Luck.

C. Determination.

13. What is the woman doing?

A. Conducting an interview.

B. Holding a press conference.

C. Hosting a ceremony.

听第9段材料,回答第14至16题。

14.What is next to the apartment building?

A. A restaurant.

B. A laundry.

C. A grocery store.

15.Which is included in the rent?

A. Electricity.

B. The Internet.

C. Satellite TV.

16.What does the woman think of the apartment?

A. It’s quite large.

B. It’s well furnished.

C. It’s worth the money.

听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。

17. Where is Jeff from?

A. Liverpool.

B. Coventry.

C. Newcastle.

18.Where do young men go to watch big games according to Jeff?

A. Pubs.

B. Stadiums.

C. Friends’ homes.

19.Why does Jeff have to pick a team to support?

A. To avoid being bothered.

B. To open a conversation.

C. To earn respect from others.

20.What does Jeff mainly talk about?

A. England’s moment of success.

B. English flag as a symbol of hope.

C. England’s all-time favourite sport.

第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)

第一节 (共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)

阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。

A

Train Information

All customers travelling on TransLink services must be in possession of a valid ticket before boarding. For ticket information,please ask at your local station or call 13 12 30.

While Queensland Rail makes every effort to ensure trains run as scheduled,there can be no guarantee of connections between trains or between train services and bus services.

Lost property(失物招领)

Call Lost Property on 13 16 17 during business hours for items lost on Queensland Rail services.

The lost property office is open Monday to Friday 7:30am to 5:00pm and is located(位于)at Roma Street station.

Public holidays

On public holidays, generally a Sunday timetable operates. On certain major event days,i.e.

Australia Day, Anzac Day, sporting and cultural days, special additional services may operate.

Christmas Day services operate to a Christmas Day timetable,Before travel please visit translink. com. au or call TransLink on 13 12 30 anytime.

Customers using mobility devices

Many stations have wheelchair access from the car park or entrance to the station platforms.

For assistance, please Queensland Rail on 13 16 17.

Guardian trains (outbound)

21. What would you do get ticker information?

A. Call 13 16 17. B. Visit translink .com.au.

C. Ask at the local station. D. Check the train schedule.

22. At which station can you find the lost property office?

A. Altandi. B. Roma Street. C. Varsity Lakes. D. Fortitude Valley.

23. Which train would you take if you go from Central to Varsity Lakes?

A.6:42 pm. B.7:29 pm. C.8:57 pm. D.11:02 pm.

B

Returning to a book you’ve read many times can feel like drinks with an old friend. There’s a welcome familiarity — but also sometimes a slight suspicion that time has changed you both, and thus the relationship. But books don’t change, people do. And that’s what makes the act of rereading so rich and transformative.

The beauty of rereading lies in the idea that our bond with the work is based on our present mental register. It’s true, the older I get, the more I feel time has wings. But with reading, it’s all about the present. It’s about the now and what one contributes to the now, because reading is a give and take between author and reader. Each has to pull their own weight.

There are three books I reread annually The first, which I take to reading every spring is Emest Hemningway’s A Moveable Feast. Published in 1964, it’s his classic memoir of 1920s Paris. The language is almost intoxicating (令人陶醉的),an aging writer looking back on an ambitious yet simpler time. Another is Annie Dillard’s Holy the Firm, her poetic 1975 ramble (随笔) about everything and nothing. The third book is Julio Cortazar’s Save Twilight: Selected Poems, because poetry. And because Cortazar.

While I tend to buy a lot of books, these three were given to me as gifs, which might add to the meaning I attach to them. But I imagine that, while money is indeed wonderful and necessary, rereading an author’s work is the highest currency a reader can pay them. The best books are the ones that open further as time passes. But remember, it’s you that has to grow and read and reread in order to better understand your friends.

24. Why does the author like rereading?

A. It evaluates the writer-reader relationship.

B. It’s a window to a whole new world.

C. It’s a substitute for drinking with a friend.

D. It extends the understanding of oneself.

25. What do we know about the book A Moveable Feas!?

A. It’s a brief account of a trip.

B. It’s about Hemingway’s life as a young man.

C. It’s a record of a historic event.

D. It’s about Hemingway’s friends in Paris.

26. What does the underlined word "currency" in paragraph 4 refer to?

A. Debt

B. Reward.

C. Allowance.

D. Face value.

27. What can we infer about the author from the text?

A. He loves poetry.

B. He’s an editor.

C. He’s very ambitious.

D. He teaches reading.

C

Race walking shares many fitness benefits with running, research shows, while most likely contributing to fewer injuries. It does, however, have its own problem.

Race walkers are conditioned athletes. The longest track and field event at the Summer Olympics is the 50-kilometer race walk, which is about five miles longer than the marathon. But the sport’s rules require that a race walker’s knees stay straight through most of the leg swing and one foot remain in contact (接触) with the ground at all times. It’s this strange form that makes race walking such an attractive activity, however, says Jaclyn Norberg, an assistant professor of exercise science at Salem State University in Salem, Mass.

Like running, race walking is physically demanding, she says, According to most calculations, race walkers moving at a pace of six miles per hour would burn about 800 calories(卡路里) per hour, which is approximately twice as many as they would burn walking, although fewer than running, which would probably burn about 1,000 or more calories per hour.

However, race walking does not pound the body as much as running does, Dr. Norberg says. According to her research, runners hit the ground with as much as four times their body weight per step, while race walkers, who do not leave the ground, create only about 1.4 times their body weight with each step.

As a result, she says, some of the injuries associated with running, such as runner’s knee, are uncommon among race walkers. But the sport’s strange form does place considerable stress on the ankles and hips, so people with a history of such injuries might want to be cautious in adopting the sport. In fact, anyone wishing to try race walking should probably first consult a coach or experienced racer to learn proper technique, she says. It takes some practice.

28. Why are race walkers conditioned athletes?

A. They must run long distances.

B. They are qualified for the marathon.

C. They have to follow special rules.

D. They are good at swinging their legs.

29. What advantage does race walking have over running?

A. It’s more popular at the Olympics.

B. It’s less challenging physically.

C. It’s more effective in body building.

D. It’s less likely to cause knee injuries.

30 What is Dr. Norberg’s suggestion for someone trying race walking?

A. Getting experts’ opinions.

B. Having a medical checkup.

C. Hiring an experienced coach.

D. Doing regular exercises.

31. Which word best describes the author’s attitude to race walking?

A. Skeptical. B. Objective.

C. Tolerant. D. Conservative.

D

The connection between people and plants has long been the subject of scientific research. Recent studies have found positive effects. A study conducted in Youngstown,Ohio,for example, discovered that greener areas of the city experienced less crime. In another,employees were shown to be 15% more productive when their workplaces were decorated with houseplants.

The engineers at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology(MIT)have taken it a step further changing the actual composition of plants in order to get them to perform diverse,even unusual functions. These include plants that have sensors printed onto their leaves to show when they’re short of water and a plant that can detect harmful chemicals in groundwater. "We’re thinking about how we can engineer plants to replace functions of the things that we use every day,"explained Michael Strano, a professor of chemical engineering at MIT.

One of his latest projects has been to make plants grow(发光)in experiments using some common vegetables. Strano’s team found that they could create a faint light for three-and-a-half hours. The light,about one-thousandth of the amount needed to read by,is just a start. The technology, Strano said, could one day be used to light the rooms or even to turn tree into self-powered street lamps.

in the future,the team hopes to develop a version of the technology that can be sprayed onto plant leaves in a one-off treatment that would last the plant’s lifetime. The engineers are also trying to develop an on and off"switch"where the glow would fade when exposed to daylight.

Lighting accounts for about 7% of the total electricity consumed in the US. Since lighting is often far removed from the power source(电源)—such as the distance from a power plant to street lamps on a remote highway-a lot of energy is lost during transmission(传输).

Glowing plants could reduce this distance and therefore help save energy.

32. What is the first paragraph mainly about?

A. A new study of different plants.

B. A big fall in crime rates.

C. Employees from various workplaces.

D. Benefits from green plants.

33. What is the function of the sensors printed on plant leaves by MIT engineer?

A. To detect plants’ lack of water

B. To change compositions of plants

C. To make the life of plants longer.

D. To test chemicals in plants.

34. What can we expect of the glowing plants in the future?

A. They will speed up energy production.

B. They may transmit electricity to the home.

C. They might help reduce energy consumption.

D. They could take the place of power plants.

35. Which of the following can be the best title for the text?

A. Can we grow more glowing plants?

B. How do we live with glowing plants?

C. Could glowing plants replace lamps?

D. How are glowing plants made pollution-free?

第二节 (共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)

根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。

A Few Tips for Self-Acceptance

We all want it to accept and love ourselves. But at times it seems too difficult and too far out of reach. 36 Here’s a handful of ways that will set you in the right direction.

● 37 Do not follow the people who make you feel not-good-enough. Why do you follow them? Are you hoping that eventually you will feel empowered because your life is better than theirs? Know that your life is your own;you are the only you in this world.

●Forgive yourself for mistakes that you have made. We are often ashamed of our shortcomings, our mistakes and our failures. 38 You will make mistakes, time and time again. Rather than getting caught up in how you could have done better, why not offer yourself a compassionate (有同情心) response? "That didn’t go as planned. But, I tried my best."

●Recognize all of your strengths. Write them down in a journal. Begin to train your brain to look at strength before weakness. List all of your accomplishments and achievements. You have a job, earned your degree, and you got out of bed today. 39

●Now that you’ve listed your strengths, list your imperfections. Turn the page in your journal. Put into words why you feel unworthy, why you don’t feel good enough. Now, read these words back to yourself. 40 Turn to a page in your journal to your list of strengths and achievements. See how awesome you are?

A. Feeling upset again?

B. Where do you start?

C. Nothing is too small to celebrate.

D. Remember, you are only human.

E Set an intention for self-acceptance.

F. Stop comparing yourself with others.

G. When does the comparison game start?

第三部分 语言知识运用(共两节,满分45分)

第一节 (共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分)

阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。

Since our twins began learning to walk, my wife and I have kept telling them that our sliding glass door is just a window. The 41 is obvious. If we 42 it is a door, they’ll want to go outside 43 . It will drive us crazy. The kids apparently know the 44 . But our insisting it’s 45 a window has kept them from 46 millions of requests to open the door.

I hate lying to the kids. One day they’ll 47 and discover that everything they’ve always known about windows is a 48 .I wonder if 49 should always tell the truth no matter the 50 . I have a very strong 51 that the lie we’re telling is doing 52 damage to our children. Windows and doors have 53 metaphorical(比喻) meanings. I’m telling them they can’t open what they absolutely know is a door. What if later in 54 they come to a metaphorical door, like an opportunity(机会) of some sort, and 55 opening the door and taking the opportunity, they just 56 it and wonder, "What if it isn’t a door?" That is, "What if it isn’t a 57 opportunity?"

Maybe it’s an unreasonable fear. But the 58 is that I shouldn’t lie to my kids. I should just 59 repeatedly having to say, "No. We can’t go outside now." Then when they come to other doors in life, be they real or metaphorical, they won’t 60 to open them and walk through.

41. A. relief B. target C. reason D. case

42. A. admit B. believe C mean D. realize

43. A. gradually B. constantly C. temporarily D. casually

44. A. result B. danger C. method D. truth

45. A. merely B. slightly C. hardly D. partly

46. A. reviewing B. approving C. receiving D. attempting

47. A. win out B. give up C. wake up D. stand out

48. A. dream B. lie C. fantasy D. fact

49. A. parents B. twins C. colleagues D. teachers

50. A. restrictions B. explanations C. differences D. consequences

51. A. demand B. fear C. desire D. doubt

52. A. physical B. biological C. spiritual D. behavioral

53. A traditional B. important C. double D. original

54. A. life B. time C. reply D. history

55. A. by comparison with B. in addition to C. regardless of D. instead of

56. A. get hold of B. stare at C. knock on D. make use of

57. A real B. Typical C. similar D. limited

58. A. safety rule B. comfort zone C. bottom line D. top secret

59. A. delay B. regret C. enjoy D. accept

60. A. hurry B. decide C. hesitate D. intend

第二节 (共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)

阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。

China has become the first country to land a spacecraft on the far side of the moon. The unmanned Chang’e-4 probe (探测器) - the name was inspired by an ancient Chinese moon goddess 61 (touch) down last week in the South Pole-Aitken basin. Landing on the moon’s far side is 62 (extreme) challenging. Because the moon’s body blocks direct radio communication with a probe, China first had to put a satellite in orbit above the moon in a spot 63 it could send signals to the spacecraft and to Earth. The far side of the moon is of particular 64 (interesting) to scientists because it has a lot of deep craters (环形山), more so 65 the familiar near side. Chinese researchers hope to use the instruments onboard Chang’e-4 66 (find) and study areas of the South Pole-Aitken basin. "This really excites scientists," Carle Pieters, a scientist at Brown University, says, "because it 67 (mean) we have the chance to obtain information about how the moon 68 (construct)" Data about the moon’s composition, such as how 69 ice and other treasures it contains, could help China decide whether 70 (it) plans for a future lunar (月球的) base are practical.

第四部分 写作(共两节,满分35分)

第一节 短文改错(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)

假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文,请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误,每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。

增加:在缺词处加一个漏字符号(∧),并在其下面写出该加的词。

删除:把多余的词用斜线(\)划掉。

修改:在错的词下划一横线,并在该词下面写出修改后的词。

注意:1. 每处错误及其修改均仅限一词;

2. 只允许修改10处,多者(从第11处起)不计分。

Today I tried cooking a simply dish myself. I like eating frying tomatoes with eggs, and I thought it must to be easy to cook. My mom told me how to preparing it. First I cut the tomatoes into pieces but put them aside. Next I broke the eggs into a bowl and beat them quickly with chopstick. After that I poured oil into a pan and turned off the stove, I waited patiently unless the oil was hot. Then I put the tomatoes and the beaten eggs into pan together. "Not that way," my mom tried to stop us but failed. She was right. It didn’t tum out as I had wished.

第二节 书面表达(满分25分)

你校正在组织英语作文比赛。请以身边值得尊敬和爱戴的人为题,写一篇短文参赛,内容包括:

1. 人物简介;

2. 尊敬和爱戴的原因。

注意:

1. 词数100左右;

2. 短文题目和首句已为你写好。

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